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06.28.2007, 12:21 PM
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#1 |
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invito al cielo
Join Date: Aug 2006
Posts: 2,879
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If terminating a pregnancy is the removal of a "fetus," then how come killing a pregnant woman is considered double homicide?
Just thought I'd confuse/piss off everyone. If there IS an answer, however, I'd love to hear ir. |
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06.28.2007, 12:42 PM
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#2 |
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invito al cielo
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 2,816
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i think because if there is a first timester fetus in a woman's womb and she wishes to remove it, it is her decision. but if some stranger decides that not only the woman but her fetus should die, thats murder. whats in her body belongs to her.
(until a certain period)
__________________
If there's been a way to build it, There'll be a way to destroy it, Things are not that out of control www.myspace.com/dellilahtheband www.myspace.com/lecirquedesvampiresmusic |
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06.28.2007, 01:11 PM
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#3 |
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invito al cielo
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: england
Posts: 5,580
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because they presume the pregnant woman who is killed wanted to keep the baby.
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06.28.2007, 03:06 PM
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#4 |
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invito al cielo
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 11,290
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I think all homicides should be referred to as "post-birth abortions," which would clean up this little mess you've laid out for us quite nicely.
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06.28.2007, 08:10 PM
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#5 | |
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invito al cielo
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 3,607
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Quote:
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